In 1 Corinthians 14.34-35, Paul enjoined women to be silent in church, and in 1 Timothy 2.11-12, he forbade them from teaching or exercising authority over men.
Why did he do this?
Some evangelical scholars say that he didn't. They argue that the traditional interpretation of these passages is wrong. They do this on various grounds, exegetical and cultural.
However, their arguments are not strong enough to overturn the traditional understanding of these texts. (1, 2) For example, some scholars argue that Paul laid down the restrictions he did because of the attitude to women at the time. He did not want women to exercise their liberty in Christ in a way that created difficulties for unbelievers, used to seeing women in a more submissive role. However, where Timothy was at Ephesus, unbelievers would have seen women taking a leading part in religious life. The city was dominated by the temple of Artemis, where priestesses served alongside priests and carried great respect (3). Jewish attitudes were of course different, but Paul had broken away from these (Philippians 3.1-11).
